John 1:16. “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” As another has described God’s grace: it is God’s Riches At Christ’s Expense. John 1:17(ESV) Verse Thoughts. Answer: “For from [Christ’s] fullness we have all received, grace upon grace” … This can lead to people who accept Jesus yet do not live for Him. 20 For everyone who does evil hates the Light and does not come to the Light, so that his actions may not be exposed. i. He finished it, put the capstone on it, and revealed it to us. Question: "What does John 3:16 mean?" The word ‘complete’ means to be ‘made full’. Born Again Defined. Please explain its meaning. This definition isn’t far off from what Jesus is telling us to do here in John 15. There is a sin that leads to death. (202.2). God's blessings to us in Jesus are beyond our scope of imagining. Born Again Defined. Let’s read again John 1:16, “And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.”  What is this fullness speaking of? Israel had returned to the sins of their forefathers and, God says, “refused to listen to my words.” The people were joined to their idols. As to ὅτι (because), if it were the true reading, it would be necessary to make it relate either to the testimony of the apostles in John 1:14, or to that of the Baptist in John 1:15. “Every branch in Me that does not bear fruit He [God] takes away; and every branch that bears fruit He prunes, that it may bear more fruit.” ~Jesus in John 15:2 If you have ever wondered why you suffer losses–a job, a come, a business, a marriage, etc.–take a deeper look into the verse above. Key Thought. What does John 1:16 mean? New King James Version Update. Why does the Bible use the lion symbol for good and bad examples? My Prayer. We need a continual cleansing because the Bible says we continually sin and fall short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23). And (2) man’s understanding is finite, whereas God is infinite. JOHN 3:19-21 19 “And this is the condemnation, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the Light because their actions were evil. The Gospel of John weds theology to poetry. Now in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate there is a pool, called in Hebrew Beth-zatha, which has five porticoes. "Of," or better, out of this fulness does each individual receive, and thus the ideal church becomes "his body, the fulness of him that filleth all things in … If God is light and has no darkness (1 John 1:5), then a believer cannot both walk with God and walk in darkness. (John 1:18) What does it mean that Jesus is the "Only God" or the "Only Begotten God"? Does the Apostle John seem to make a distinction between God … We should always see to it that the life we are leading is fulfilling this purpose that is captured in John 15:16, for as we fulfill our purpose, we prove to … Why? 17 For the Law was given through Moses; … John 3:18 states, “He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.” This means that our witness to unbelievers must include sin, righteousness, and judgment, along with faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, as the only remedy for our helpless condition. Real faith is based on real Truth. One man was there who had been ill for thirty-eight years. John was not intimating that there was no grace under the Law of Moses, for every sacrifice spoke of the beautiful final sacrifice, Who was to be lifted up on the cross. Perfect love is a responsible love, a giving love, a gracious love that disperses fear, perfects the saint, and is the greatest gift of all. And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace. So whatever does not agree with the truth is false or unprofitable. Steven Cole favors John 1:16 as explaining John 1:14. Pilate will release one person to the Jews for the Passover. Of his fulness - In John 1:14 the evangelist has said that Christ was "full of grace and truth." In my judgment, 1 John 5:16 echoes Jeremiah 11, and similar texts in that book. The Greek phrasing could be translated as "grace upon grace," or "grace in place of grace." The “shepherd of the sheep” in this illustration is Jesus Christ (John 10:11) and any other person is a robber or thief (John 10:7-8). The we allof John 1:16, which implies the existence of the Church, in any case excludes the supposition that John the Baptist is still speaking in John 1:16. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] The ultimate expression of God's love for mankind is grace. We need to make sure that we see these two verses as part of the larger balancing act that John is doing in this letter. NKJV, Lucado Encouraging Word Bible, Comfort Print: Holy Bible, New King James Version. Then we will return to the gospel of John and discover the true meaning of John 1:17. But he who enters by the door is a shepherd of the sheep. Neither does this mean that it is easy to understand all that is to be known of God because; (1) sin has a limiting effect upon human understanding. The interpretation of the parable is given to us by Jesus Himself in John 10:7-16. I refer to those whose sin does not lead to death. For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.”   Along with that, let’s go back and read John 1:1, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”, There can be no doubt as to who the Word is. I have read already that some people say that Colossians 1:16 does not mean Jesus was the agent of creation, but of his own dominion. Here it means the plenitude of divine attributes, the "glory . So, what is the big deal with John 3:16? The Prologue To John's Gospel 15 John * testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘ He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. full of grace and truth." Jesus the True Shepherd. This does not mean that you believe them into being. John 3:1-16. Although he was born and educated in the U. S., his parents brought him to his mother's country every summer to visit her family. What Does 1 John 4:18 Mean? “If anyone does not abide in me he is thrown away like a branch and withers, and the branches are gathered, thrown into the fire, and burned” (John 15:6). 1,019 +22 Baptist Married. Let’s read ahead a little and consider John 1:29, “The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.”  John’s work was foretold in Malachi 3:1, “Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me…”. The former rendering tells us that more grace is given while the latter speaks about grace that is received in the New Covenant. Let’s end this meditation by reading 1 Corinthians 1:4, “I thank my God always on your behalf, for the grace of God which is given you by Jesus Christ. What does it mean that Jesus is the Lamb of God? What does John 1:1,14 mean when it says that Jesus is the Word of God? John is merely saying that grace came and a complete telling, or revealing, of the truth was made through the Mediator—Jesus Christ our Savior. In John 5:23 Jesus states, “He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.” This means that the cults, which all deny the deity of Jesus, cannot bring anyone to God. Who was John the Baptist in the Bible? 16. of his fulness--of "grace and truth," resuming the thread of John 1:14. grace for grace--that is, grace upon grace (so all the best interpreters), in successive communications and larger measures, as each was able to take it … "But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. — John 1:16-17 NLT. John 16:13 What Does John 16:13 Mean? It tells the very purpose for which Jesus Christ has called some people to Himself to become Christians. I am not saying that you should pray about that. John 1:16 grace upon grace NASB [or grace in place of grace NABRE]. Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers. The meaning of this, while pretty simple, is incredibly powerful. What is the meaning of “grace upon grace” in John 1:16? This verse does not say, “In the beginning was Jesus.” “The Word” is not synonymous with Jesus, or even “the Messiah.” The word logos in John 1:1 refers to God’s creative self-expression—His reason, purposes and plans, especially as they are brought into action. What does this verse really mean? Clearly, Jesus' words carry the imperative for belief. . No other verse in the Bible … 19-24. The gospel wants to remind us that this is the Passover, with all of its meaning and symbolism. Some "entertainers" have thrown in a twist and replaced "John" with "something else 3:16." Friday, January 12, 2018. John 1:16. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.” God loves you so much that He sent His Son, Jesus Christ, to be born on earth and die on a cross. This is different from mercy, which means not getting what you actually do deserve. And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. Grace in Torah. Remember that John's epistle is written to church members. John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me. 2 This Mary, whose brother Lazarus now lay sick, was the same one who poured perfume on the Lord and wiped his feet with her hair. I had been building a friendship with an expatriate from the U. S. His mother was an Ecuadorian and he had married a beautiful young Ecuadorian woman. 17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. Thread Status: Not open for further replies. 1. It would be interesting to poll the congregation here as to what you think that would be. I had been building a friendship with an expatriate from the U. S. His mother was an Ecuadorian and he had married a beautiful young Ecuadorian woman. All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that does not lead to death” (1 John 5:16–17). Some "entertainers" have thrown in a twist and replaced "John" with "something else 3:16." Wrongly so, John 3:16 is often written as graffiti on highway overpasses. Like the old saying goes: If all you have is Christ, then you have all you need! John 1:16 Translation & Meaning. Not the language of the Baptist (Heracleon, Origen, Rupertus, Erasmus, Luther, Melancthon, Lange), against which ἡμεῖς πάντες is decisive, but that of the evangelist continued. But only through Christ is the fullness of grace and truth fully realised. John adds, “Out of his fullness we have all received grace in place of grace already given” (1:16). After this there was a festival of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. 20 For everyone who does evil hates the Light and does not come to the Light, so that his actions may not be exposed. “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who does not enter by the door into the fold of the sheep, but climbs up some other way, he is a thief and a robber. 2 But he who enters by the door is the shepherd of the sheep. John 5:1-16 The Word of God . John was contrasting the dominant characteristics of these two ages. John 1:16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. Either translation is good since the Greek allows it. Because from his fulness we all received. Of His fullness - To what does this Why is the glorification in John 17:1 circular? John was not intimating that there was no grace under the Law of Moses, for every sacrifice spoke of the beautiful final sacrifice, Who was to be lifted up on the cross. Concerning grace, an explanation was given at John 1:16: concerning truth, see below, John 1:18 [Comp. As wonderful as the work of Moses had been for Israel, as defining as the Torah (the Law that God gave Moses) was for humankind, Jesus is greater still. (John 1:16, ESV) I am curious as to the meaning of "grace upon grace." In Christ, we have all we will ever need. Who gets "everlasting life" (John 17:2)? We have also (according to John 1:16) received ‘grace for grace’. We are complete in Him! Pilate goes outside and declares his ruling to the Jews that he finds no guilt in him. The strong assertion, “Except a man be born again.” The word “again” (anoôthen PWS: 80) … MagusAlbertus custom user title. The establishment of God's covenant with Israel is described in the Bible in Ex. Our Price: $27.99. We also read of Christ in Colossians 2:9-10, “For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. Key Thought. 1 John 1:6 "If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:" Walk in darkness means walking in sin. Does this refer to Christ as Grace, who loves us so much He gives grace to us? For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. He was with God and is God, Himself. I have read this as "grace for grace" in other bible translations. What Does John 1:17 Mean? SAME SUBJECT CONTINUED. What Does It Mean To Be Born Again? John 1:1 – Meaning and Translation. He was from Bethany, the village of Mary and her sister Martha. John 3:18 states, “He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.” This means that our witness to unbelievers must include sin, righteousness, and judgment, along with faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, as the only remedy for our helpless condition. It means that we have received ‘abundant grace’ for all our needs in our Christian walk. It is GOD’S UNMERITED FAVOR upon those who deserve the opposite. GRACE for our every need; GRACE to walk in fellowship with Him; GRACE to overcome all obstacles that would hinder our faithful walk; GRACE to learn and live for Him; and when the time comes…GRACE to die! John 3:1-16 You Must be Born Again "Lord," I prayed, "give me an opportunity to share Christ with my friend." The Passover feast was a memorial for God’s deliverance. It looks deeply at the world God has made - looks through it, so to speak - and by the grace of God, it sees the glory of God (as Psalm 19:1 says) standing forth off the creation like a 3-D image. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. ... Vincent - John's meaning (of His fullness) is that Christians receive from the divine completeness whatever each requires for the perfection of his character and for the accomplishment of his work (compare Jn 15:15; Jn 17:22). Love bears all things, believes all things, hopes all things, endures all things. Christ, who is full of grace and truth, is also indwelt with the ‘fulness of the Godhead’, meaning the Father and the Spirit also took up their abode in Him. It also means that the Insider Movement, which has changed the terms “Father” and “Son” because they are offensive to Muslims has perverted the core of the gospel. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] Verse 3 was John's first mention of fellowship, both between believers and with God. That is exactly what the text says—but what does it mean? Whatever the original text in this particular verse, John clearly places Jesus right next to God as fully divine (John 1:1-3, etc.). what does 1 John 5:16-17 mean?! Why is the order of Jesus’ calling His disciples different in some of the gospels? John 1:16 Context. To answer your good question, let’s begin by reading John 1:14-17, “And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. After this there was a festival of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. You might have seen the verse at a football game, but what does it mean? He was in the beginning. What does Jesus mean by "Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You" (John 17:1)? The Apostle James had this to say in James 4:6, “But he giveth more grace….”  What exactly is grace? 10 “Most assuredly, I say to you, he who does not enter the sheepfold by the door, but climbs up some other way, the same is a thief and a robber. But before he gets to the meaning, he gives us a picture of what it looks like not to abide in him. That would be wishful thinking - the power of positive thinking. It is poetic prose—prose with the soul of poetry—prose that, like poetry, packs layers of meaning in a word or phrase. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] John includes both himself and his readers as believers in the beginning of this verse. Bible Answer: John 10:1-6 is a parable about the Good Shepherd. What does 1 John 1:6 mean? From [Jesus'] abundance we have all received one gracious blessing after another. Pilate’s discussion with Jesus has been unproductive in his own eyes. Either translation is good since the Greek allows it. Jesus is the Good Shepherd. James White (This information sheet is divided into two sections – the first explores the meaning of John 1:1, and the second addresses the more technical subject of the correct translation of the verse. Retail: $54.99. Thank you for your insight in advance. Question: "What is the meaning of ‘grace upon grace’ in John 1:16?" It refers to … Why did Jesus choose the … For - Always stop and interrogate this small but strategic term of explanation. Romans 1:16 (NASB) says: For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. Why do Christians today close eyes and clasp hands to pray? ρώματος, καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος, καὶ τρίτας ἀντι τῶν δευτέρων καὶ ἀεὶ νέας ἀντὶ παλαιοτέρων, is to be regarded as a continuation of those things which were begun, all that was to be received out of His fulness, and, ὌΝΕΙΔΟς ἭΚΕΙ ΤΌ Δʼ ἈΝΤʼ ὈΝΕΊΔΟῦς, ἙΤΈΡΑΝ ἈΝΘʼ ἙΤΈΡΑς ΦΡΟΝΤΊΔΑ ἘΝΘΕΊς, thou dost dismiss me, imposing one anxiety on another. Surprisingly, John used the great Christian word "grace" three times in his prologue (John 1:14; John 1:16-17) but nowhere else in his Gospel. He picks up on this theme again here in verse 6. 4 When he heard this, Jesus said, "This sickness will not end in death. 2 But he who enters by the door is the shepherd of the sheep. His words clearly state that both knowing and believing are important. John 1:16 Context. We have also (according to John 1:16) received ‘grace for grace’. Why is this one verse so important? In many modern churches, believing has been emphasized apart from knowing God. Several versions of the Bible translate this phrase as ‘grace upon grace’, which, I believe, is its literal meaning. The strong assertion, “Except a man be born again.” The word “again” (anoôthen PWS: 80) has three different meanings in Greek. We read in 1 John 4:2, “Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God.”  To confirm the truth that the Lord Jesus is indeed God, let’s consider 1 Timothy 3:16, “And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: GOD WAS MANIFEST IN THE FLESH, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.”, It was John the Baptist that bore witness of the person of Christ. Save: $12.00 (30%) Buy Now. In 1 John 5:16-17, what is meant by the sin that leads to death? It was the grace of God that allowed us to be saved, “For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God.”  (Ephesians 2:8)  It is the ‘abundant grace’ of God that sustains and strengthens us as we live for Him. Your answer might be different than mine. John 10:1-16. What did Jesus do with His eyes when He began to pray? It must be this way because this is our one and only opportunity for salvation, and sin was what cut us off from God in the first place, causing us to need salvation. The exposition belongs to the Notes on these passages. Question: "What does John 3:16 mean?" WE receive the benefit of that! How we should thank the Lord daily for His grace! This does not mean that what was in the law was not true. What does it say about smoking pot in the bible? John 1:1-18 . Discussion in 'Baptists' started by MagusAlbertus, Apr 7, 2006. Answer: We often see signs and banners at sporting events that say "John 3:16." It does not mean “grace on top of grace” or “one grace after another,” like Christmas presents piled … 10 “Most assuredly, I say to you, he who does not enter the sheepfold by the door, but climbs up some other way, the same is a thief and a robber. John 3:1-16 You Must be Born Again "Lord," I prayed, "give me an opportunity to share Christ with my friend." I. I guess I am what you would call a plant killer. Rich blessings, grace, mercy, kindness, unfailing love and faithfulness, ... the list could go on and on forever. Verse 14 tells us that the Lord was ‘full of grace and truth.’  WE (as believers on the Lord Jesus Christ) receive supply for all our needs out of the ‘fullness’ of Christ. This is another indication that John does not mean sinless perfection by the phrase walk in the light; otherwise, there would be no sin to cleanse in this ongoing sense. God […] JOHN 3:19-21 19 “And this is the condemnation, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the Light because their actions were evil. What does 1 John 4:16 mean? And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power.”  Amazing thought! The meaning of this, while pretty simple, is incredibly powerful. THE PROLOGUE TO THE GOSPEL OF JOHN. What "hour" (John 17:1) had come? And He was ‘made flesh, and dwelt among us.’  The Word is the Lord Jesus Christ, the living Word of God. Law expresses God"s standards, but grace provides help so we can do His will. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. Jesus the True Shepherd. So.. what does 1 John 5:16-17" 16If anyone sees his brother commit a sin that does not lead to death, he should pray and God will give him life. On the one hand, there’s a strong emphasis in 1 John … 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. In these lay many invalids—blind, lame, and paralysed. John 15:16 matters a lot in our Christian life. What does it mean that the Word became flesh (John 1:14)? In these lay many invalids—blind, lame, and paralysed. Answer: We often see signs and banners at sporting events that say "John 3:16." Indeed, John the Baptist was just quoted in the preceding passage, but most modern scholars feel that Jn 1:16-18 represents John the Gospel writer's comments. Therefore, he frames matters in absolute terms, offering no middle ground regarding sin and one's relationships with God and fellow man. John 1:16 grace upon grace NASB [or grace in place of grace NABRE]. Use this table to get a word-for-word translation of the original Greek Scripture. The former rendering tells us that more grace is given while the latter speaks about grace that is received in the New Covenant. John 1:16-18. Pilate declares that the Jews have a custom for deliverance. It means that we have received ‘abundant grace’ for all our needs in our Christian walk. 1 John 2:10-17. It does not take into account a wrong suffered, nor does it rejoice in unrighteousness. Read the Scripture: John 11:1-16 I want to talk this morning about the hardest problem to handle in the Christian life. Grace is best described as being given what you do not deserve. New King James Version ... NKJV Word Study Bible: 1,700 Key Words that Unlock the Meaning of the Bible. For the law was given through Moses, but God’s unfailing love and faithfulness came through Jesus Christ. I. A. 1 Now a man named Lazarus was sick. 15 John * testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘ He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. . Q5. John 1:17. 3 To him the doorkeeper opens, and the sheep hear his voice; and he calls his own sheep by name and leads them out. That is not authentic faith. This shows the English words related to the source biblical texts along with brief definitions. According to 2 Chronicles 36:16, “They mocked God’s messengers, despised his words, and scoffed at his prophets. John 3:1-16. That Jesus would be speaking of 'the elect' is pre-empted by the very context in which he is speaking. Who has the authority over all human beings? Regarding the meaning of the text. Retail: $39.99. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him . Notice the leading question Pilate asks: “Do you want me to release to you th… 'Grace upon Grace' — John 1:16-17. EXEGESIS: JOHN 1:1-18. If John actually means world by using the word world as he does, then the qualification Jesus makes carries a clear implication in regards to the extent of potentiality for belief. — John 1:16-17 NLT. Meaning of John 10:1-6 — The Interpretation. 3 So the sisters sent word to Jesus, "Lord, the one you love is sick.". It is patient and kind. John 5:1-16 The Word of God . What Does It Mean To Be Born Again? A. Apr 7, 2006 #1. Nor was he implying there was an absence of truth, for God's truth endures throughout all generations. UK Apologetics Reply: Okay, Let us look at this: If you see any brother or sister commit a sin that does not lead to death, you should pray and God will give them life. Now in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate there is a pool, called in Hebrew Beth-zatha, which has five porticoes. Several versions of the Bible translate this phrase as ‘grace upon grace’, which, I believe, is its literal meaning. Wrongly so, John 3:16 is often written as graffiti on highway overpasses. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.” God loves you so much that He sent His Son, Jesus […] It is imperative that the serious student of the Bible come to a basic understanding of logos, which is translated as “Word” in John 1:1.Most Trinitarians believe that the word logos refers directly to Jesus Christ, so in most versions of John logos is capitalized and translated “Word” (some versions even write “Jesus Christ” in John 1:1). Regarding the meaning of the text. But what about John 1:3, what does "through" mean there? The word ‘fulness’ literally means to be full. Replaced `` John 3:16 is often written as graffiti on highway overpasses what about John 1:3, is... Given ” ( 1 John 5:16–17 ), John 3:16 is often written as on! We can do his will gives what does john 1:16 mean a picture of what it like... 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